I agree. It's quite common to use "to be" in the plural with "who" as subject.
A: Can my friends come?
B: It depends. Who are your friends?
I'm not quite sure that's all there is to it, as it is also quite common to use "to be" in the singular with "who" as subject.
The rule, "who" agrees in person and number with its antecedent:
- Who is that guy over there?
- Who are those guys over there?
So, you see, it is just as common to use "to be" in the singular with "who" as subject because it's its antecedent that holds the key: if its, plural, "who" will be plural, if it's singular, "who" will be singular, and if it's unknown, "who" is by default singular; i.e., non-copular verbs,
Who studies English? That's the pattern I see. "Who" will always have an antecedent, be it singular or plural, in copular constructs. One is no more common than the other.
Looking back at the OP's question, what interests me is why "who" is by default singular in number when its antecedent is known:
A: They study English in this room.
B: Who studies in this room?
A: They do.
It's obvious from the semantics that 'Who' refers to 'They', a plural pronoun, so shouldn't 'Who' agree in plural number with the verb "study"?
A: They study English in this room.
B: Who study in this room? :cross:
A: They do.
Why is 'Who study' ungrammatical? Is it because "who" and its antecedent must co-occur in the same sentence?
Probably, yes.
That's as far as I've gotten.
What are your thoughts?