[Grammar] We apologize for the inconveniences the problem is causing you.

[kadioguy]

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Is it ungrammatical?

If I were he/she, I would write:

We apologize for the problem and regret the inconvenience it have been causing.


What do you think?

 

[tedmc]

I think it is fine.

I think apologize" followed by "regret" is overdoing it a bit(by natives' standard that is) but I know it is common among Asians.

 

[kadioguy]

I think it is fine.

I think apologize" followed by "regret" is overdoing it a bit(by natives' standard that is) but I know it is common among Asians.

I am simplifying it:

We apologize for the inconvenience the problem have been causing.

We apologize for the inconvenience the problem is causing.

We apologize to you for the inconvenience the problem is causing.

 

[Matthew Wai]

We apologize for the inconvenience the problem has caused you.

 

[kadioguy]

We apologize for the inconvenience the problem has caused you.

Why not We apologize for the inconvenience the problem has caused to you?

 

[Matthew Wai]

● cause something for somebody
● cause somebody something

Source: https://www.oxfordlearnersdictionaries.com/definition/english/cause_2

 

[kadioguy]

● cause something for somebody
● cause somebody something
Source: https://www.oxfordlearnersdictionaries.com/definition/english/cause_2

Well said!

We apologize for the inconveniences the problem is causing you.
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Is it ungrammatical?

Now I have known it is grammatical. I should have studied the usage of 'cause' more.

● cause somebody something

... the inconveniences the problem is causing you.
... the problem is causing you the inconveniences.

 

[GoesStation]

The singular inconvenience is more natural.

 

[Matthew Wai]

Now I have known it is grammatical.

I would use 'know' instead of 'have known'.

 

[kadioguy]

I would use 'know' instead of 'have known'.

Could you tell me what the difference is between them?

(update)
I have posted it here.

 

[emsr2d2]

Most signs and websites aren't so verbose. Once they've described the problem, they usually just say "We apologise for the/any inconvenience."

 

[kadioguy]

I would use 'know' instead of 'have known'.

I found this:

It says we can use either present simple tense or present perfect [FONT=Verdana, Arial, Tahoma, Calibri, Geneva, sans-serif]tense when the verb is learn, hear, see, [/FONT]understand[FONT=Verdana, Arial, Tahoma, Calibri, Geneva, sans-serif], etc.[/FONT]

 

[tedmc]

Now I [STRIKE]have known[/STRIKE] know it is grammatical.

Now(at the present time), I know.
I have known it since last week.
I have known it for a week.

 

[GoesStation]

It says we can use either present simple tense or present perfect tense when the verb is learn, hear, see, understand, etc.

Your dictionary says the present simple and present perfect can both translate into the same Chinese text. That does not mean that you can use either English tense when you translate from Chinese. You have to use the right one.

 

[kadioguy]

Your dictionary says the present simple and present perfect can both translate into the same Chinese text. That does not mean that you can use either English tense when you translate from Chinese. You have to use the right one.

It says present perfect tense can be used with 'now'. :shock:

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As a native speaker, could you tell me what the difference is between the following?

a. Now I have known it is grammatical.
b. Now I know it is grammatical.

 

[tzfujimino]

I find "It is/has been years since I enjoyed myself so much as yesterday" (in post #12) very strange.
What does it mean?
(I'm sorry it's off topic.)

 

[kadioguy]

I find "It is/has been years since I enjoyed myself so much as yesterday" (in post #12) very strange.
What does it mean?
(I'm sorry it's off topic.)

In that Chinese text, it says I was very happy yesterday, and I haven't enjoyed myself so much like that for years.

 

[GoesStation]

As a native speaker, could you tell me what the difference is between the following?

a. Now I have known it is grammatical.
b. Now I know it is grammatical.

The second one is natural. The first one isn't.

 

[Matthew Wai]

a. Now I have known it is grammatical.
b. Now I know it is grammatical.

I would say 'Now I have learnt it is grammatical' or 'Now I know it is grammatical'.

It says we can use either present simple tense or present perfect tense when the verb is learn, hear, see, understand, etc.

I think we cannot use the simple present in 'Now I have learnt it is grammatical'.

In that Chinese text, it says I was very happy yesterday, and I haven't enjoyed myself so much like that for years.

I disagree with your translation. It says 'I was very happy yesterday and had not been so for years'.

 

[tedmc]

I was very happy yesterday and had not been so for years.

Grammar aside, I think the Chinese characters suggest the element of enjoyment which is missing from Matthew's translation but is in kadioguy's.

I was very happy yesterday, and I [STRIKE]haven't[/STRIKE] hadn't enjoyed myself [STRIKE]so [/STRIKE] as much [STRIKE]like that [/STRIKE]for years.