[Grammar] Recognizing an infinitive

Status
Not open for further replies.

JIM1984

Junior Member
Joined
Jan 12, 2011
Member Type
Student or Learner
Native Language
English
Home Country
Ireland
Current Location
UK
When the infinitive form can be recognized, usually, with a 'to' before it: to eat, to sing, to be, etc, how then is a word which follows categorized, as in to be understood, to be seen, etc? Is it, for want of a better term, just another part of the infinitive (phrase)?
 
Hi.
*not a teacher*
Those are passive infinitives. At least they were called so by the people who taught me.
 
These days many people prefer to speak of the (bare) infinitive, as in:..... I can see,.....they must go,.....shall we dance?

and the to-infinitive, as in:..... To err is human, .....I want to leave,,.....don't you want to stay?.

As Verona noted, to be understood is a passive (to-)infinitive, made up of the to-infinitive of BE and the past participle (or third form) of UNDERSTAND.
 
These days many people prefer to speak of the (bare) infinitive, as in:..... I can see,.....they must go,.....shall we dance?

and the to-infinitive, as in:..... To err is human, .....I want to leave,,.....don't you want to stay?.

As Verona noted, to be understood is a passive (to-)infinitive, made up of the to-infinitive of BE and the past participle (or third form) of UNDERSTAND.
3
Thanks for the analysis very well explained.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top