apologize for doing versus having done

[englishhobby]

1) I apologized for losing my temper.
2) I apologized for having lost my temper.

Do these two sentences mean the same? If yes, can they be used in the same situation? If not, can you give an example of different situations where each of them can be used?

 

[emsr2d2]

They mean the same and you will hear both from native speakers. You will also hear "I apologise for losing/having lost my temper" when someone is actually in the act of apologising, rather than reporting the apology at a later time. It means the same as "I would like to apologise to you for ..."

 

[englishhobby]

If they mean the same, why isn't "having done" becoming less common then (as a more complicated structure)?

 

[Rover_KE]

'...having lost my temper' is already far less common than 'losing my temper'.