There are now only two schools in the area that actually teach Latin

GoldfishLord

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Nouns and pronouns in relative clauses​

When the relative pronoun is the subject of the relative clause, we don’t use another personal pronoun or noun in the relative clause because the subject (underlined) is the same:
  • She’s the lady who lent me her phone. (who is the subject of the relative clause, so we don’t need the personal pronoun she)
Not: She’s the lady who she lent me her phone.
  • There are now only two schools in the area that actually teach Latin. (that is the subject of the relative clause, so we don’t need the personal pronoun they)
Not: There are now only two schools in the area that they actually teach Latin.

Source: https://dictionary.cambridge.org/grammar/british-grammar/relative-clauses-defining-and-non-defining



It seems to me the subject of the relative pronoun "that actually teach Latin" is "two schools', not "two schools in the area". Therefore, I think that "in the area" should not be underlined.
What do you say?
 
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If you take out "in the area" from that phrase it changes the meaning entirely.

There are two schools in the area. What do they do at those schools? They teach Latin.
 
Yes, I just think that "There are now only two schools in the area that actually teach Latin." should be "There are now only two schools in the area that actually teach Latin."
 
Those sentences are the same. They just have different words underlined. 🤔
 
Where did you find that sentence? Is it yours?
 
It seems to me the subject of the relative pronoun "that actually teach Latin" is "two schools', not "two schools in the area". Therefore, I think that "in the area" should not be underlined.
What do you say?

No, you've got it wrong. Think about the difference in meaning between the following two sentences:

There are only two schools that teach Latin.
There are only two schools in the area that teach Latin.
 
They teach Latin at those schools.
 
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