[Grammar] Regarding a meaning and syntax of the sentence.

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Joe333

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Joined
Oct 16, 2008
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Student or Learner
Native Language
Tamil
Home Country
Sri Lanka
Current Location
Spain
Sentence: "Of what use he is of the party ? He can do nothing. He is good for nothing"

My question/doubts: Is the above underlined sentence correct in syntax and makes sense in native English ? Or the sentence doesn't make any sense and its wrong ? I wanna know this.

Thanks
 
'Of what use is he to the party' sounds good to me.
 
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