gr5959
New member
- Joined
- Aug 17, 2014
- Member Type
- Retired English Teacher
- Native Language
- German
- Home Country
- Germany
- Current Location
- Germany
As a foreign student of English I am puzzled by a phenomenon I noticed recently when listening on Radio Four to a discussion between lecturers in literature from Oxford and Cambridge universities. Some of them pronounced the a in and, hand, have as [ᴂ], exactly as I learned it many years ago and as it appears in the Pronouncing Dictionaries of John Wells and Daniel Jones. However, the others pronounced it more like [ᴧ], the sound in but or in German Land.
Is the latter pronunciation a regional or social phenomenon or does this indicate a general shift in English pronunciation? G.R.
Is the latter pronunciation a regional or social phenomenon or does this indicate a general shift in English pronunciation? G.R.