Parsing.

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It is not a verb phrase; it is an infinitive phrase. Infinitives can be nouns, adjectives, or adverbs.
 
Then is the infinitive in question a noun, an adjectives, or an adverbs?
 
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Then is the infinitive in question a noun, an adjectives, or an adverbs?


I don't know what others will think but I think it is acting like a noun here like I said on post #17.
 
That is difficult to answer. We have a number of theories in this thread about how the sentence should be parsed. Those theories will affect how we parse the infinitive phrase. If the infinitive phrase is the direct object of the verb, it is noun. If it is a complement of "her", then it would be an adjective.
 
And many don't. We have already had this debate. My opinion has not changed.

I agree that an infinitive is a verb form, but not a verb.
 
Many grammarians consider this to be a verb phrase, and infinitives to be verbs/verb-forms.

Others will probably think different but I think it is just verbs that act like noun, adjective, and adverbs.
 
Can a verb phrase be an object complement?


That's what I thought in my post#6, but Piscean disagreed.

Piscean is entitled to his/her opinion.
 
If you change "verbs" to "verbals", I completely agree.
 
The fact that a verb can function as a modifier does not transform it into an adjective.
In my post#6, I said the infinitive acted as an adjective modifying the noun before it instead of being an adjective. Why did you disagree?
 
I distinguish between form and function also. That is why verbals function as different things than verbs do.
 
Why don't y'all change the infinitive phrase into a "noun that clause" or a "relative that clause" to see which one works?
 
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Change "fon't" to "don't".
 
I fon't think the infinitive is 'acting as an adjective' in the sentence you were talking about.
Do you think the infinitive is acting as a noun, i.e. the direct object of 'persuaded'?
 
Well, non-finite verbs function in a different way to finite verbs, yes. They are, however both verbs, unless you restrict the word 'verb' to the base form listed in dictionaries.

I listed in another thread a number of leading grammarians who considered non-finite forms to be verbs. You have not yet mention one who considers them not to be verbs.

Being a "leading grammarian or anything" doesn't make them always right.
 
Piscean, your list of academicians does not impress me. There is tremendous pressure in academia to publish "new" things even if one has to make them up. I have been dealing with this for forty years.

I restrict the use of the word "verb" to the traditional understanding of "verb" as a part of speech in a sentence. An infinitive is not a part of speech; neither is a participle. They provide other functions in a sentence.
 
Why don't y'all change the infinitive phrase into a "noun that clause" or a "relative that clause" to see which one works?

He persuaded her that she shouldn't go. What function do y'all think it has?
 
You can guess whatever you like. We have already debated this. There is no reason to do it again. The last thread was closed. I am aware of your opinion and am not convinced by it. Let's leave it at that, shall we?
 
Indeed. However, when the majority of leading grammarians agree on one point, and nobody has come up with a grammarian who doesn't then we can guess the leading grammarians are on the right track.

They might still be wrong.
 
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