John was heard to be swearing, but nobody is said to have told him off.

[Adrianna95]

John was heard to be swearing, but nobody is said to have told him off.

Can I say John was heard swearing instead of to be swearing? Is there any difference in meaning between those two sentences?

 

[emsr2d2]

John was heard to be swearing, but nobody is said to have told him off.

Can I say "John was heard swearing" instead of "to be swearing"? Is there any difference in meaning between them? those two sentences?

I find both clauses of the original sentence unnatural. "John was heard swearing" is more natural than "heard to be swearing". "... but nobody is said to have told him off" is grammatically correct but an odd way of phrasing it. When we use "said to", we're usually talking about something that a lot of people say. I'd use something like the following:

John was heard swearing but nobody told him off.
John was heard swearing but I gather nobody told him off.
John was heard swearing but, as far as I know, nobody told him off.

Did you write the original sentence yourself? If so, please provide more context. If not, please provide the source and author.

Please note that I have changed your thread title and edited the main body of the post. The sentence you're asking us to look at was correctly put in the title. However, you need to repeat that sentence in the post and add all the rest of the information (your question etc).

 

[Adrianna95]

Thank you very much for your perfect explanation. I find it very useful. The sentences comes from my polish book about English grammar. The book is called 'English grammar 6' Preston Publishing. Can I ask you one more question?

'Is there any difference in meaning between them? those two sentences?'

Is it a grammar mistake to say those two sentences? Why did you cross them/(these?) out?

I am very glad to have found this forum.

The knowledge and tips you can get here are invaluable for a person who learn English as a foreign language.

 

[Tarheel]

@Adrianna95
Say:

the sentence comes or the sentences come

Also:

a person who is learning English as a foreign language

 

[Barque]

'Is there any difference in meaning between them? those two sentences?'

Is it a grammar mistake to say those two sentences? Why did you cross them/(these?) out?

It's simpler to say "them", especially when it's obvious what "them" refers to.

 

[teechar]

The sentences comes from my polish Polish book about English grammar.

I agree that that the sentence in the first post is unnatural.
Note that "is said to" can mean: is considered/thought/supposed/expected to.
However, it does not work in the context of that sentence in post #1.