Habituellement
Junior Member
- Joined
- Oct 18, 2018
- Member Type
- Academic
- Native Language
- French
- Home Country
- France
- Current Location
- France
Hello.
I have a question concerning the passage in bold below.
The context of my question:
I am writing an academic article which mainly deals with the philosophy of Herbert Spencer.
Spencer maintains that capitalism has developed and spread in the course of history and that this fact (i.e. the development and spread) is not due to somebody's arbitrary or capricious will or to pure accident; rather, it is due to the high productivity of capitalism which enabled populations to increase in wealth (economic growth) and in numbers (demographic growth). Spencer maintains that, in view of the reason why capitalism developed and spread, the abandonment of capitalism now would have tragic economic and demographic consequences.
Later in my article I try to use an analogy to better explain Spencer's argument.
The passage:
Please could you tell me whether the passage in bold is good English and understandable?
Thank you very much.
I have a question concerning the passage in bold below.
The context of my question:
I am writing an academic article which mainly deals with the philosophy of Herbert Spencer.
Spencer maintains that capitalism has developed and spread in the course of history and that this fact (i.e. the development and spread) is not due to somebody's arbitrary or capricious will or to pure accident; rather, it is due to the high productivity of capitalism which enabled populations to increase in wealth (economic growth) and in numbers (demographic growth). Spencer maintains that, in view of the reason why capitalism developed and spread, the abandonment of capitalism now would have tragic economic and demographic consequences.
Later in my article I try to use an analogy to better explain Spencer's argument.
The passage:
By the passage in bold, I mean that, of course, language developed and spread in the world not for arbitrary reasons but because it enabled people to communicate and to collaborate effectively, to achieve learning, to share information, etc. So, if language was abandoned, there would be catastrophic consequences for people, but if, on the contrary, language developed and spread in the world for no particular reasons, maybe it could be easily abandoned by people.By the same token, one could claim, for example, that, if history showed that the development and spread of language[SUP]1[/SUP] everywhere in the world have been merely arbitrary or accidental, then peoples[SUP]2[/SUP] could possibly decide to abandon language without catastrophic consequences – a conjecture which is very far-fetched of course.
[SUP]1 [/SUP]I mean language in general here, not one idiom or another in particular.
[SUP]2[/SUP] Maybe populations would be better than peoples here.
Please could you tell me whether the passage in bold is good English and understandable?
Thank you very much.
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