KEN JPN
Junior Member
- Joined
- May 27, 2012
- Member Type
- Retired English Teacher
- Native Language
- Japanese
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- Japan
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- Philippines
This question may have something to do with the history of English.
If it rains tomorrow, I will stay home.
In the if-clause here, "rains"(indicative) is used instead of the subjunctive mood present 'rain'.
I know to say "If it rain tomorrow" is archaic and not used in Modern English any longer and I myself do not say like that, even though it is grammatically correct. (At least, "archaic" means "it was correct in old English, right?)
I would like to know why, and/or how, the subjunctive mood was replaced with indicative.
I think I have read in some book before:
1, English speakers feel more comfortable to say "rainS" when the subject is "it". Saying "rain" with the subject "it" sounds awkward or against ears.
2, If one says "if it rain" , though knowing it is grammatically correct, he may feel uneasy thinking that he would be taken illiterate or uneducated by the listener who believes that, when the subject is "it", the predicate verb MUST be "rains" because he does not know anything about the subjunctive mood. So, to avoid that embarrassment, he dares to say "rains" though it should actually be "rain" in the indicative mood. Thus, this tendency has spread all over until it has become "standard".
In short, to say "rains" is grammatically wrong but has been accepted by most (or all) people. When the majority makes the same mistake, it will be correct.
Do you think my understanding is correct?
Or is there any other historical background, influence of French grammar (in French to use indicative is grammatically correct in if-clause, I hear.) or any other reason?
Thank you in advance.
If it rains tomorrow, I will stay home.
In the if-clause here, "rains"(indicative) is used instead of the subjunctive mood present 'rain'.
I know to say "If it rain tomorrow" is archaic and not used in Modern English any longer and I myself do not say like that, even though it is grammatically correct. (At least, "archaic" means "it was correct in old English, right?)
I would like to know why, and/or how, the subjunctive mood was replaced with indicative.
I think I have read in some book before:
1, English speakers feel more comfortable to say "rainS" when the subject is "it". Saying "rain" with the subject "it" sounds awkward or against ears.
2, If one says "if it rain" , though knowing it is grammatically correct, he may feel uneasy thinking that he would be taken illiterate or uneducated by the listener who believes that, when the subject is "it", the predicate verb MUST be "rains" because he does not know anything about the subjunctive mood. So, to avoid that embarrassment, he dares to say "rains" though it should actually be "rain" in the indicative mood. Thus, this tendency has spread all over until it has become "standard".
In short, to say "rains" is grammatically wrong but has been accepted by most (or all) people. When the majority makes the same mistake, it will be correct.
Do you think my understanding is correct?
Or is there any other historical background, influence of French grammar (in French to use indicative is grammatically correct in if-clause, I hear.) or any other reason?
Thank you in advance.