Which translation is correct?

[mocni]

Hello,

Can you tell me please which sentence is correct:

"It is mine until the invoce WILL BE PAID"
or
"It is mine until the invoce IS PAID"

Thanks a lot for your help
KJ

 

[Rover_KE]

The second version is correct.

 

[mocni]

Thanks!
I thought so.
Can you tell me why the first one is wrong?

 

[Rover_KE]

I'm afraid not.

I've just noticed that you mean 'invoice'.

Rover

 

[BobSmith]

I can, from a layman's POV. If it's mine, until such time that it's paid for, that means you can't have it until you pay for it. If you say "don't worry, it will be paid", I'm still in the position of not yet having the payment, so it remains with me.

"is paid" means money has changed hands.

"will be paid" still means the future, which is unknowable.

Does this help?

 

[BobK]

'In God we trust. (Everybody else pays cash.)' ;-0

b

 

[5jj]

In temporal clauses referring to the future, introduced by such words as before, after, as soon as until, etc, we use the present tense:

It is yours when/as soon as/once/after the invoice [STRIKE]will be[/STRIKE] is paid.
It is mine until the invoice [STRIKE]will be[/STRIKE] is paid.

Note that the underlined is in the main clause can be replaced by will be.

 

[mocni]

That's the answer I've been looking for!
Thanks a lot!