GoodTaste
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I've failed to clearly understand the phrase "to be convinced by a proposition to the degree that there is evidence for it." It appears to possibly have two different meanings to me: (1) It means "to be convinced by a proposition, and the degree of this state of being convinced is that we believe that there is evidence for it"; (2) It means "to be convinced by a proposition, because the proposition has reached the degree that there is evidence for it."
Which one is correct?
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The doors leading out of scriptural literalism do not open from the inside. The moderation we see among nonfundamentalists is not some sign that faith itself has evolved; it is, rather the product of the many hammer blows of modernity that have exposed certain tenets of faith to doubt. Not the least among these developments has been the emergence of our tendency to value evidence and to be convinced by a proposition to the degree that there is evidence for it.
Source: The End of Faith by Sam Harris (PDF)
Which one is correct?
===============
The doors leading out of scriptural literalism do not open from the inside. The moderation we see among nonfundamentalists is not some sign that faith itself has evolved; it is, rather the product of the many hammer blows of modernity that have exposed certain tenets of faith to doubt. Not the least among these developments has been the emergence of our tendency to value evidence and to be convinced by a proposition to the degree that there is evidence for it.
Source: The End of Faith by Sam Harris (PDF)