subject to or subjected to

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lam yin

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Should it be "subject to" or "subjected to" for the sentence below ?

'If companies insisted for the product to carry therapeutic claims, they would then be subject to pre-market control under ABC'.
 
They are both fine in this sentence.
 
Should it be "subject to" or "subjected to" for the sentence below ?

'If companies insisted for the product to carry therapeutic claims, they would then be subject to pre-market control under ABC'.

Hello Birdeen's call! I think you are not completelly right here. As we are talking about "pre-market control under ABC" I think that "subject to" is much better.

"subject to": Here "subject" is used as an adjective.
"subjected to": here we have "subject" as a verb and "would be subjected to" is in the passive form.

And "subject" when used as an adjective has not the same meaning as when it is used as a verb.

subject (verb): to make someone exprience something unpleasant (subject somebody to something): "Her husband subjected her to years of physical abuse."

Ofcourse in lam yin's sentence we can assume the companies to be made to exprience something unpleasant by "pre-market control under ABC" but in my opinion that is not the point and "subject to" is better than "subjected to" here.
 
thanks Khosro for the explanation
 
You took only one definition from the dictionary, Khosro. There are more:
tr.v. (sb-jkt) sub·ject·ed, sub·ject·ing, sub·jects
1. To submit for consideration.
2. To submit to the authority of.
3. To expose to something: patients subjected to infection.
4. To cause to experience: subjected to extreme weather.
5. To subjugate; subdue.

(from the AHD)

Also, it's rather clear that the pre-market control is not a desirable experience.
 
I disagree with you BC. "Subject to" has a different connotation than "subjected to". The original sentence is correct.

This is where using a dictionary to substantiate your argument is a poor tactic.

Not a teacher
 
thanks alleman

I understand now "subject to" is correct one for the sentence.
 
Both choices work for this sentence, but they mean different things.
Since there is an original sentence, and it makes sense (given no other context), there's no reason to suggest that it should be different. If the original sentence read "subjected to", there would still not be enough evidence to suggest that it should be changed to something else.

To me, it's a choice between: being controlled by ABC (subjected to), and being liable to control by ABC (subject to). Who's to say what the author meant?
 
The original sentence is correct.
Yes, whichever is original, it is correct.

I didn't use a dictionary to substantiate my argument. I used it to refute Khosro's dictionary argument.
 
Yes, whichever is original, it is correct.

I didn't use a dictionary to substantiate my argument. I used it to refute Khosro's dictionary argument.

Sorry birdeen's call. You are right. My dictionary is not always reliable, and my second dictionary is old. That's the reason why in such cases I always check them with an online dictionary. But since last week my internet connection speed is worse than ever and I could not participate in the forum as I did before and many times I skipped the crucial stage of looking up the words in online dictionaries.

Iran has the worst internet in the world and Korea has the best. Then how can I communicate with my korean forummates? :-D

As you and others said, both can be correct here, though I prefer "subject to" just because of the "ABC", it sounds more natural to me. Thank you all.
 
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