[Grammar] someone's name

[LQZ]

Dear teacher,

I ran into the following sentences at another forum.

1 There is no Mike's bike in my house.
2 Mike's bike is not in my house.

One native speaker said that sentence 1 is grammatcially incorrect, because someone's name can't be used as an adjective like that. But I am confused about why when someone's name is used as an adjective in the sentence 2, it is correct. Looking forward to your help, and thanks in advance.


LQZ

 

[Kondorosi]

1 There is no Mike's bike in my house.

When I hear 'there is no,' I expect an indefinite noun to follow. In Mike's bike, Mike's defines, determines (determiner) the reference of the noun it modifies.

 

[LQZ]

Thank you. You are right, and I've found the grammar rule.