pay for using/pay to use gerund vs. the infinitive

[navi tasan]

1-They decided to pay for constructing a new monument.

2-They decided to pay to construct a new monument.


Is there a difference in the meanings of these sentences?


Does "1" imply that the payment will be made after the construction is over?
Is "they" the subject of "to construct" in "2"?

 

[SlickVic9000]

*Not a Teacher*

There is no difference in meaning between those sentences. Also, neither of the statements give any indication as to when the payment will be made.
"They" is the subject of the sentence.


For the first sentence, I would write this:
"They decided to pay for the construction of a new monument."

For the second:
"They decided to pay to have a new monument constructed."