otherwise we would of

[suprunp]

I'm so gutted we didn't actually get to dress up, we didn't actually know it's gonna be here, otherwise we would of.
(FIRST TIME visiting PRIDE in LA!!; YouTube)

I was told somewhere else that an educated native speaker would not use the weak form if 'have' comes at the end of a sentence. I wonder whether I've heard it correctly and she did use the weak form, which I represented as 'of' in the sentence above?

Thanks.

 

[Skrej]

I think she's just using the contracted form '"would've", which in AmE does sound like 'would of'.

Perhaps a BrE speaker can confirm that's the case here (and in general) in BrE as well.

 

[GoesStation]

She seems to enunciate would of very clearly. It's common to pronounce have like of when it's an auxiliary—so much so that would of often appears in the written language where the writer means would've.

 

[suprunp]

I think she's just using the contracted form '"would've", which in AmE does sound like 'would of'.

Perhaps a BrE speaker can confirm that's the case here (and in general) in BrE as well.

So, she does use the weak form at the end of a sentence, doesn't she?

Thanks.

 

[emsr2d2]

Oh, I can assure you she actually does say "would of". Sadly, given her age, appearance and accent, I am not remotely surprised.

 

[GoesStation]

So, she does use the weak form at the end of a sentence, doesn't she?

Well, she says would of. This doesn't mean she's using a contraction, which would be unnatural. She would quite likely write something like I would of gone with you if I could of, not realizing that she meant have both times.

 

[jutfrank]

So, she does use the weak form at the end of a sentence, doesn't she?

I don't know what you mean by 'weak form'. The term 'weak form' usually refers to the pronunciation of have, as it occurs for example in would've.

She says of, which is incorrect. Her southern English accent makes this very obvious. I don't think she's completely uneducated (I always think that's very harsh on poor school teachers) but she is clearly not aware of her mistake. It is extremely likely that she she reproduces this error in writing.

 

[emsr2d2]

I agree with all of jutfrank's points except the last sentence. I think she probably does write it incorrectly too.

 

[jutfrank]

I agree with all of jutfrank's points except the last sentence. I think she probably does write it incorrectly too.

Did you misread the sentence? I'm sure she does write it incorrectly.

 

[jutfrank]

It is extremely likely that she she reproduces this error in writing.

We all make mistakes, Saff.

 

[emsr2d2]

Did you misread the sentence? I'm sure she does write it incorrectly.

Aha! I did misread it. I thought you said it was extremely unlikely that she reproduces the error in writing! Think my eyes have given up after being on my laptop for 14 hours so far today. :roll:

 

[jutfrank]

Think my eyes have given up after being on my laptop for 14 hours so far today. :roll:

I would of done the same if I'd of been doing that.

 

[GoesStation]

We all make mistakes, Saff.

I dont'.

 

[suprunp]

I think she's just using the contracted form '"would've", which in AmE does sound like 'would of'.

Perhaps a BrE speaker can confirm that's the case here (and in general) in BrE as well.

I don't know what you mean by 'weak form'. The term 'weak form' usually refers to the pronunciation of have, as it occurs for example in would've.

She says of, which is incorrect. Her southern English accent makes this very obvious.

May I ask you what would be the difference between her southern-English-accent would've and would of (given that in AmE there's ostensibly not that much of a difference)?

Thanks.

 

[Beth Anne]

I agree with Skrej that she is indeed using the contracted form of "would have" to make "would've." However, when pronouncing the contraction, it does sound exactly like "would of" in American English and because of that fact many younger native English speakers do think that it is actually "would of" and therefore write it that way as emsr2d2 and jutfrank correctly point out. I also agree with jutfrank that the "weak form" refers to the contracted form "would've". Also, this speaker, Saffron Barker, is from the UK so she speaks Brittish English (BrE), not American English (AmE). However, the pronunciation of this contraction is the same in both BrE and AmE. I speak AmE myself and love pronunciation. This was a great question suprunp!

 

[jutfrank]

May I ask you what would be the difference between her southern-English-accent would've and would of (given that in AmE there's ostensibly not that much of a difference)?

Thanks.

She pronounces the o in of where most people would pronounce a schwa.

 

[Rover_KE]

I think my eyes have given up after being on my laptop for 14 hours so far today. :roll:

I can recommend my optician: Seymour Clearley.

 

[suprunp]

Because never in a million years would I of intentionally done that, of meant to or been like that.
(MY Primark LAUNCH Party!!; YouTube)

Here she is again, but this time even I can say it's unmistakably an of.

She says of, which is incorrect. Her southern English accent makes this very obvious. I don't think she's completely uneducated (I always think that's very harsh on poor school teachers) but she is clearly not aware of her mistake. It is extremely likely that she she reproduces this error in writing.

I wonder when it may strike a person that it should be have or why a person may not be actually aware of this (I would understand if they chose not to be aware of it, but it still means they first should become cognizant of it to ignore it)? Given that speaking comes before reading (for native speakers) would it imply that such a person hasn't been reading enough to notice have where they would have put of instead?

Thanks.

 

[jutfrank]

I suppose that when it becomes a habitual part of your speech it's very hard to stop saying it even when you know it's wrong.