He has something wrong with him

Status
Not open for further replies.

FalaGringo

Junior Member
Joined
May 28, 2021
Member Type
Interested in Language
Native Language
English
Home Country
UK
Current Location
England
Are these both grammatically correct.?


  1. "There is something wrong with him."
  2. "He has something wrong with."
 
Yes. And I don't see any difference in meaning or register.
 
Are these both grammatically correct.?


  1. "There is something wrong with him."
  2. "[strike]He has something wrong with[/strike]."

I find (2) ungrammatical. It's missing "him" after "with":

He has something wrong with him.
 
I only say 'There's something wrong with him'.
 
For me there's a difference in meaning.

The use of 'have' in He has something wrong with him I think shows that the speaker is thinking of some kind of persisting condition that in some way 'belongs' to him.
 
Oops, sorry, I overlooked that missing word at the end of 2.
 
For me there's a difference in meaning.

The use of 'have' in He has something wrong with him I think shows that the speaker is thinking of some kind of persisting condition that in some way 'belongs' to him.

Yes- I wouldn't use it for a common cold.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.

Ask a Teacher

If you have a question about the English language and would like to ask one of our many English teachers and language experts, please click the button below to let us know:

(Requires Registration)
Back
Top