[Grammar] Having eaten my breakfast/After eating my breakfast/After I ate my breakfast.

[Aamir Tariq]

1. Having eaten my breakfast, I watched TV.
   
2. After eating my breakfast, I watched TV.
3. I watched TV, after I ate my breakfast.

Do they all have same meanings?
Are they grammatically correct?
Are they natural and commonly used?

Regards
Aamir the Global Citizen

 

[emsr2d2]

They all mean the same but you don't need the comma in number 3.

You can also say "I watched TV after eating my breakfast". Also note that you could remove "my" from all the examples and the meaning would not change.

With 2 and 3, you could shorten them further by simply using "after breakfast".