Has he bath? Has he breakfast? and static and dynamic verbs

[freijorn]

Hello, I have learned that the sentence “Has he breakfast at 7 a.m.?” is grammatically correct but old fashioned. Are the sentences such as “Has he a bath?”, “Has he any fun?”, and “Has he a chat?” grammatically correct too? Does the same rule apply to these too?


1-“He hasn’t any money.”
2-“He doesn’t have any money.”
Also I have learned that the “have” verb in the first sentence is a static auxiliary verb and the “have” verb in the second sentence is a dynamic lexical verb. I understand that their structures are different but are their meanings different too?
Thanks a lot.

 

[tedmc]

You have answered your own question.
No. 1 is used by the older generation as you have been told before in another thread. Why would you want to use it?

 

[5jj]

Hello, I have learned that the sentence “Has he breakfast at 7 a.m.?” is grammatically correct but old fashioned.

Who told you that? It is not correct.

Are the sentences such as “Has he a bath?”, “Has he any fun?”, and “Has he a chat?” grammatically correct too?

The first is possible in BrE, though old-fashioned, when it means Does he possess a bath?
It is not possible with the meaning Does he take a bath?

1-“He hasn’t any money.”
2-“He doesn’t have any money.”
Also I have learned that the “have” verb in the first sentence is a static auxiliary verb and the “have” verb in the second sentence is a dynamic lexical verb.

That is not correct.

I understand that their structures are different but are their meanings different too?

No.

 

[Tdol]

1-“He hasn’t any money.”
2-“He doesn’t have any money.”
Also I have learned that the “have” verb in the first sentence is a static auxiliary verb and the “have” verb in the second sentence is a dynamic lexical verb. I understand that their structures are different but are their meanings different too?

Don't they mean the same thing?

 

[emsr2d2]

The four sentences below are all ways of saying the same thing:

1. He hasn't any money.
2. He doesn't have any money.
3. He hasn't got any money.
4. He has no money.

#1 is old-fashioned and we don't recommend using it. In BrE, #3 is the most common.

 

[freijorn]

Who told you that? It is not correct.

The first is possible in BrE, though old-fashioned, when it means Does he possess a bath?
It is not possible with the meaning Does he take a bath?



That is not correct.


No.

In the first page of thread 283746, one of the members had written that "Has she breakfast at 8?" is grammatical and I took it as reference.

Okay, I can infere that “Has he a bath?” is grammatically correct because it implies possession(owning) of something(ex. -He has a bath in his house/cottage) but “Has he any fun?” and “Has he a chat?” are not correct because they don't imply possession. They only imply doing something so I can infere that "Has he breakfast at 7 a.m.?" isn't grammatically correct. Am I wrong?

Also, in the second page of the thread 283746, one of the members had written that "Notice that lexical "have" has do-support, whereas auxiliary "have" does not." and I took it as reference.

 

[Charlie Bernstein]

In the first page of thread 283746, one of the main members had written that "Has she breakfast at 8?" is grammatical and I took it as reference.

It seems like a word jumble.

Okay, can I infer that “Has he a bath?” is grammatically correct because it implies possession [space] (owning) of something [space] (ex. -He has a bath in his house/cottage) but “Has he any fun?” and “Has he a chat?” are not correct because they don't imply possession.

That's right.

In conversational American Engilsh, we're more likely to say either say bathroom or bathtub, depending. Bath is more of an industry term, used mostly by people in the business of designing, building, or selling real estate.

They only imply doing something, so I can infer that "Has he breakfast at 7 a.m.?" isn't grammatically correct.

If you like.

That's what I know.

 

[5jj]

thread 283746

https://www.usingenglish.com/forum/...uot-without-quot-do-quot?highlight=do-support

 

[5jj]

In the first page of thread 283746, one of the members had written that "Has she breakfast at 8?" is grammatical.

GS wrote that it is grammatical but rarely used by anyone under seventy years of age.

 

[5jj]

Also, in the second page of the thread 283746, one of the members had written that "Notice that lexical "have" has do-support, whereas auxiliary "have" does not." and I took it as reference.

Two members in that thread claimed that have in “He hasn’t any money” was an auxiliary verb. Two members took the more traditional view that it is a lexical verb.

 

[freijorn]

GS wrote that it is grammatical but rarely used by anyone under seventy years of age.

I’m curios that are “Has he breakfast at 7 a.m.?”, “Has he a bath?”, “Has he any fun?”, and “Has he a chat?” grammatically correct but old-fashioned? I know I’m being a little annoying but I’m looking for a certain answer if they are grammatical or not.

 

[freijorn]

Two members in that thread claimed that have in “He hasn’t any money” was an auxiliary verb. Two members took the more traditional view that it is a lexical verb.

Thank you I got it.

 

[5jj]

In an unfortunate accident a few months ago, the member posting under the name Piscean had all his posts (23,000+ of them) deleted. In the thread we are talking about, you can see snippets from some of his posts in some of the QUOTE boxes. It's a pity we can't see the posts themselves, because Piscean authoritatively, and conclusively demolish the argument that have in “He hasn’t any money” was an auxiliary verb.

 

[Charlie Bernstein]

GS wrote that it is grammatical but rarely used by anyone under seventy years of age.

I've never heard anyone over seventy use it, either.

 

[Charlie Bernstein]

In an unfortunate accident a few months ago, the member posting under the name Piscean had all his posts (23,000+ of them) deleted. In the thread we are talking about, you can see snippets from some of his posts in some of the QUOTE boxes. It's a pity we can't see the posts themselves, because Piscean authoritatively, and conclusively demolish the argument that have in “He hasn’t any money” was an auxiliary verb.

Is it that hard to demolish? There's no verb for it to be auxiliary to.

 

[5jj]

It is, nonetheless, the view of several modern grammarians.

 

[Charlie Bernstein]

I’m curious.[STRIKE]that [/STRIKE]Are “Has he breakfast at 7 a.m.?”,

That's grammatical but unnatural. Why do you want to know? Are you writing a Victorian novel?

“Has he a bath?”,

That's grammatical if you mean bathroom or bathtub. Otherwise, it should be, "Is he taking a bath?"

“Has he any fun?”,

That's grammatical (but unnatural) in the sense of "Does he have any fun?" Otherwise, it should be, "Is he having any fun?"

and “Has he a chat?”

That's not grammatical. Depending on what you mean, you could use either "Is he having a chat?" or "Does he chat?"

grammatically correct but old-fashioned?

See the comments above.
I know I’m being a little annoying, but I’m looking for an [STRIKE]certain[/STRIKE] answer to whether they are grammatical [STRIKE]or not[/STRIKE].

The only annoying part is the happyface!

(Cross-post with 5jj.)

 

[5jj]

I’m curious. [STRIKE]that[/STRIKE] Are “Has he breakfast at 7 a.m.?”, “Has he a bath?”, “Has he any fun?”, and “Has he a chat?” grammatically correct but old-fashioned?

Whether or not they are technically grammatical is, in my opinion, less important than the fact that they would sound unnatural to more than 99% of native speakers today.
.

 

[freijorn]

In an unfortunate accident a few months ago, the member posting under the name Piscean had all his posts (23,000+ of them) deleted. In the thread we are talking about, you can see snippets from some of his posts in some of the QUOTE boxes. It's a pity we can't see the posts themselves, because Piscean authoritatively, and conclusively demolish the argument that have in “He hasn’t any money” was an auxiliary verb.

It's clear now. Thank you so much.

 

[freijorn]

The only annoying part is the happyface!

(Cross-post with 5jj.)

Thank you so much. My dream is being an English teacher and teaching this beautiful language to children. I especially want to be a sufficient one. Therefore, I wanted to know more about these sentences.

About this topic, I think it's better to stick to the "possession" and "action" logic of "have" for teaching others as you had taught me that, “Has he a bath?” is grammatically correct because it implies possession(owning) of something(ex. -He has a bath in his house/cottage) but “Has he any fun?” and “Has he a chat?” are not correct because they don't imply possession.

I wonder why “Has he a chat?” is not ungrammatical for old-fashioned English?
Also, why is your example "Does he chat?" instead of Does he have a chat? What is the difference between "Does he chat" and "Does he have a chat?

Sorry for my exhausting questions.