"drop/fall/sink down to"/"rise up to"

[Carlos Edu]

Hello, everyone,

Do "drop/fall/sink down to" and "rise up to" sound natural, correct and acceptable or wrong and non-natural?

Is this sentence correct: "The price of these stocks dropped/fell/sank down to $8.00 and later rose up to $10.00."? If I can't say that, why was written "rise up to" and "dropped down to" in the following sentences?

"Bosch says weak euro will help sales rise up to 5%." (europe.autonews)
"Zoë Kravitz Dropped Down to 90 Pounds to Play Woman With Anorexia."(eonline)

Thanks in advance!

 

[probus]

Hello, everyone,

Do "drop/fall/sink down to" and "rise up to" sound natural, correct and acceptable or wrong and non-natural?

Is this sentence correct: "The price of these stocks dropped/fell/sank down to $8.00 and later rose up to $10.00."? If I can't say that, why was written "rise up to" and "dropped down to" in the following sentences?

To me all three seem correct and natural in this context. They are synonymous.

"Bosch says weak euro will help sales rise up to 5%." (europe.autonews)

This is quite different. The word "by" has been omitted but is nevertheless understood: "will help sales rise by up to 5%." Without the implied by "...sales rise up to 5%" would be ungrammatical and meaningless.

Thanks in advance!

 

[Carlos Edu]

Thank you very much, probus!

 

[Rover_KE]

There is no need to write a new post just to say "Thank you". It makes us think there is new information or a follow-up question and we spend time opening the thread. Simply click on the "Thank" button at the bottom left-hand corner of any post you find helpful. It saves everybody's time.

You can nearly always omit 'up' and 'down' after verbs like 'rise', 'climb', 'drop', 'fall' and 'sink' — certainly in the examples in your post.

 

[emsr2d2]

You don't need "down" after any of them. "Dropped", "fell" and "sank" all imply a downward direction. You don't need "up" after "rose" for the same reason (implied upwards direction).

The price of these stocks fell to £10 but later rose to £13.

Apologies - I completely missed the second part of Rover's post above.

 

[Carlos Edu]

If I write "...stocks dropped down to $8.00 and later rose up to $10.00." in a test of English proficiency, would you as an English native speaking teacher correct me for it been redundant or not? Would you say to me "Don't worry! It's all ok! You can say 'stocks dropped down to/fell down to/sank down to $8.00' and 'stocks rose up to $10.00' with no problem. We would probably say it too."?


What would it be your reaction if I say "...stocks dropped down to $8.00 and later rose up to $10.00."? Would it be something like "Oh my God! You said 'stocks dropped down to $8.00 and later rose up to $10.00'. You must say just 'stocks dropped to $8.00 and later rose to $10.00', idiot. You failed for this mistake"?

Sorry if I'm asking the same question as before!