Can

[Tdol]

;-)

 

[RonBee]

That seems to be BE. I would say she can make it there by three, which I think is pretty typical AE.

 

[Tdol]

We also use 'make it'. ;-)

 

[RonBee]

We might say she can be there by three, but I am not so sure of at three.

 

[Tdol]

They're different to me- one sets a limit, the other just gives a possible arrival time. ;-)

 

[silver_queen]

after modal verbs u must use infinitive without to....(gosh very soon i'll be a gold queenDDDD)

 

[Teia]

Hi

Modal verbs are usually followed by short infinitives

e.g.He can be of help whenever you want.



Best wishes

 

[sana88]

i think its be

 

[masterbg]

yeah me too it`s be ;-)

 

[anamaria3080]

CAN is a Modal Auxiliary Verb and They can not be used with the preposition TO and the Structure of CAN is:

Subject + Can + Main verb

I + can + play tennis.

The main verb is always the bare infinitive (infinitive without "TO")


A.M

 

[Leon Khan]

Itz "be"

who voted for "to be"???
:-Dlolz...

 

[RonBee]

Itz "be"

who voted for "to be"???
:-Dlolz...

It's

 

[lhen04]

^ I agree.
Can

 

[geetha reddy]

She can be there is only correct

 

[xxxlordxxx]

can=to helping verbs

 

[The French]

;-)

Hi, here is The French,

one easy question for English. Some people, say on theirs anwers that after modal verbs we must put the verb in the infinitive form (without to).

But for "ought to" is it the same rule?

Thank

 

[RonBee]

Hi, here is The French,

one easy question for English. Some people, say on theirs anwers that after modal verbs we must put the verb in the infinitive form (without to).

But for "ought to" is it the same rule?

At the risk of somebody finding examples of the use of "ought to" that contradict me, I say yes.

ENGLISH PAGE - Ought to

​

 

[Omania]

" be" is the correct answer

 

[e-learning]

I think
be;-)

 

[Amal-30]

be