By the time.... I'll have gotten/I'll get.

[Ashraful Haque]

1) I'll get my PR by the time you get a visa.
2) I'll have gotten my PR by the time you get a visa.

Are both of these correct and mean the same thing?

 

[emsr2d2]

If we had any idea what a "PR" was, we might be able to help you. The standard use of "PR" is to mean "Public Relations". I have a feeling that's not what you mean here.

 

[GoesStation]

"Permanent resident certificate".

 

[emsr2d2]

That would, I would think, be "PRC". "PR" could be "Permanent Residency". But please, let's find out from the OP.

 

[Raymott]

The standard use of "PR" in medicine is "Per Rectum examination".

 

[tedmc]

Permanent residency and visa are related matters handled by a country's immigration department.

 

[emsr2d2]

Permanent residency and visa are related matters handled by a country's immigration department.

I'm well aware of that but the fact that they appear in the same sentence doesn't necessarily mean they are connected.

Ashraful Haque, if you ever come back to this thread, please put us out of our misery and tell us what you meant by "PR".

 

[jutfrank]

The standard use of "PR" in medicine is "Per Rectum examination".

Aha, now I understand what Ashraful Haque is trying to say. There must be quite a waiting list in his country!

 

[Ashraful Haque]

I'm sorry for being late. By PR I meant Permanent Residence. At least that's what we call it here. I thought the visa part would make it clear.

 

[emsr2d2]

I'm sorry for being late. By PR I meant Permanent Residence. At least that's what we call it here. I thought the visa part would make it clear.

Don't assume anything, especially with acronyms/initials. It's always better to write the words out in full, at least the first time you mention them. In BrE, neither would be used but #2 is the closest. "I'll have got my permanent residence by the time you get your visa."

 

[Ashraful Haque]

Don't assume anything, especially with acronyms/initials. It's always better to write the words out in full, at least the first time you mention them. In BrE, neither would be used but #2 is the closest. "I'll have got my permanent residence by the time you get your visa."

So 'I'll get.....by the time' is incorrect? Should it always be 'I'll have got/gotten.....by the time?'

(I know got/gotten is BrE/AmE)

 

[GoesStation]

So 'I'll get.....by the time' is incorrect? Should it always be 'I'll have got/gotten.....by the time?'

(I know got/gotten is BrE/AmE)

"I'll get my permanent residency by the time you get your visa" is correct and natural.

 

[emsr2d2]

"I'll get my permanent residency by the time you get your visa" is correct and natural.

I find the present continuous at the start very unnatural there. It's possibly an AmE v BrE difference.

 

[GoesStation]

"I'll get my permanent residency by the time you get your visa" is correct and natural.

I find the present continuous at the start very unnatural there. It's possibly an AmE v BrE difference.

Ashraful Haque and I didn't use the the continuous. Do you find the future unnatural? It works fine in American English.

 

[emsr2d2]

Sorry! It's been a long day! I have no idea why I said "present continuous"! I find the future of "get" a little unnatural there. If it said "I'll have my PR by the time you get your visa", I would have had no issue.

 

[Ashraful Haque]

I think I'm a little confused from all the answers.

1) I'll get my PR by the time you get a visa.
2) I'll have gotten my PR by the time you get a visa.

Are you guys saying that 1 sounds correct and natural? And does that mean 2 is incorrect?

 

[GoesStation]

I think I'm a little confused from all the answers.

1) I'll get my PR by the time you get a visa.
2) I'll have gotten my PR by the time you get a visa.

Are you guys saying that 1 sounds correct and natural? And does that mean 2 is incorrect?

They're both correct and natural to my American ears.

 

[emsr2d2]

And for me, BrE speaker, 1 sounds unnatural and 2 is fine (notwithstanding the fact that I would never use "gotten").

It's all to do with the choice of verb. I would add that I would probably reverse the two halves of the sentence in my natural speech pattern.

By the time you get your visa, I'll have got my permanent residency!
By the time you get your visa, I'll have my permanent residency!

Perhaps it's because, to me, "I'll have got" means "I'll have received". I would find "I'll receive" there more than just unnatural.

 

[jutfrank]

I think this thread has gotten a bit lost. Going back to post #11:

So 'I'll get.....by the time' is incorrect? Should it always be 'I'll have got/gotten.....by the time?'

(I know got/gotten is BrE/AmE)

Yes, that's right. I'll get ... is grammatical but it's not what you mean. What you mean can only be expressed with a past participle. The correct way to say what you mean is:

I'll have gotten ...
I'll have got ...

 

[Ashraful Haque]

I think this thread has gotten a bit lost. Going back to post #11:



Yes, that's right. I'll get ... is grammatical but it's not what you mean. What you mean can only be expressed with a past participle. The correct way to say what you mean is:

I'll have gotten ...
I'll have got ...

I see. You said that what I mean can only be expressed with 'I'll have gotten/got......by the time."

This leads me to another question. What would this mean then:
"I'll get......by the time"