because he was too ignorant

navi tasan

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Nov 19, 2002
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1) The child thought no geometry other than the Euclidean geometry existed because he was too ignorant to think that.
2) The child thought no geometry other than the Euclidean geometry existed because he was too ignorant to think so.
3) The child thought no geometry other than the Euclidean geometry existed because he was too ignorant to think differently.

Which of the above are correct and meaningful? To me, the first two don't make sense.
 
All the three sentences don't make sense to me.

The child thought no geometry other than the Euclidean geometry existed because he was (too) ignorant.
 
It would be more natural to say none of them make sense. Perhaps: "He thought Euclidean geometry was the only kind there was because it was the only one he'd heard of." Or: "He thought Euclidean geometry was the only kind there was because he was ignorant of any other."
 
Why don't you just ask us how to say clearly what you mean?

The child was too ignorant to realise that there was any other kind of geometry than Euclidean geometry.

I don't know if you're aware that it sounds a bit harsh to call a child 'ignorant' just because he's unfamiliar with non-Euclidean geometry.
 

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