[Grammar] After he was shot in the knee,he couldn't fight.

[sitifan]

1. After he was shot in the knee, he couldn't fight.
2. Shot in the knee, he couldn't fight.

The above sentences are quoted from Xuan Yuanyou's Grammar. Mr. Xuan thinks that #1 and #2 have the same meaning because #2 is a reduced version of #1. Do native speakers agree with what he says?

 

[GoesStation]

I wouldn't use #2. You could say Having been shot in the knee.

 

[jutfrank]

I wouldn't say it was the same meaning, no.

Sentence 2 would most likely be understood as resultative. In other words, a reduced version of Since he was shot in the knee, he couldn't fight.