[Grammar] after he had received/after having received

[Oceanlike]

I have used different verb (forms?) in the two sentences below.
- Do they differ in meaning?
- Is (A) a better sentence construction than (B)?


(A) On 2 June 2015, Ted went to meet “Thomas” at his flat, after he had received an invitation from him.

(B) On 2 June 2015, Ted went to meet “Thomas” at his flat, after having received an invitation from him

Thank you! :-D

 

[bhaisahab]

They are both OK. There is no difference in meaning.

 

[Oceanlike]

'Had received' is past perfect tense. What tense is 'having received'? I'm wondering if 'having' is a gerund.

Thank you!