By your reply, can I assume it is inverted sentence?It could be, but it's fine as written.
It's not inverted like an interrogative sentence. I think a different syntactic term applies, but I'm not the right person to say.By your reply, can I assume it is an inverted sentence?
There are some contexts in which whose could substitute for in which. The sentence you quoted in post #1 is not one of them. Neither is the first sentence of this post.Which grammar rule applies to it? As far as I understand, "of which" is an equivalent of "whose".
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